Both these were HUGELY enabled by British Palestine, which I did mention, and which your writeup on land ownership totally ignores That's how you go from a few acres of desert in 1920 to a sizable % of the entire region. Once there was anything resembling a sizable amount of Jews and Jewish ownership facilitated by British-"occupied" Palestine, there was revolt.Originally Posted by Taymelo
No, they owned a much-smaller portion than that, as your own quote shows:In my next installment, I'll debunk the pushing and shoving argument.
OK. I'll do it now.
In reality, in 1948, arabs could have had 45% of all of the land at issue, with the jews getting 55%. Since the jews owned more of the land than the arabs did (see above) it was actually a steal of a deal for the arabs.
Not that it was really relevant, as there were a lot of problems with the Israel-Palestine split as laid out by the U.N. Rather than post Asimov's collected works of quotes and talk about who had access to fresh water and who had desert and all sorts of matters pertaining to the particulars of the land itself, just take a look at the image of how it was supposed to work:Originally Posted by something Taymelo dug up
Note how Israel and Palestine each consist of three largely-discontiguous blobs. You could infer conflict just by looking at the map boundaries and having no idea of who the parties are.
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